Difference between revisions of "Equivalence relation induced by a function"

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* for {{M|x_1,x_2\in X}} we say {{M|x_1\sim x_2}} if {{M|1=f(x_1)=f(x_2)}}
 
* for {{M|x_1,x_2\in X}} we say {{M|x_1\sim x_2}} if {{M|1=f(x_1)=f(x_2)}}
 
Note that {{M|f}} may be [[factor (function)|factored]] through the [[canonical projection of an equivalence relation]] to yield an injection. Furthermore if {{M|f}} is [[surjective]], then so is the induced map, and then the induced map is a bijection.
 
Note that {{M|f}} may be [[factor (function)|factored]] through the [[canonical projection of an equivalence relation]] to yield an injection. Furthermore if {{M|f}} is [[surjective]], then so is the induced map, and then the induced map is a bijection.
* See: [[factoring through the projection of an equivalence relation generated by a map yields an injection and if the map is surjective then the factored map is surjective also and is thus a bijection]]
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* See: [[factoring a function through the projection of an equivalence relation induced by that function yields an injection]] and [[if a surjective function is factored through the canonical projection of the equivalence relation induced by that function then the yielded function is a bijection]]
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==Proof==
 
==Proof==
 
{{Requires proof|grade=D|easy=true|msg=Easy proof, marked as such. Just gotta show it's an [[equivalence relation]]}}
 
{{Requires proof|grade=D|easy=true|msg=Easy proof, marked as such. Just gotta show it's an [[equivalence relation]]}}

Revision as of 22:25, 8 October 2016

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Something weird happened with every surjective map gives rise to an equivalence relation this page is what it SHOULD be. I also have a reference, granted not that strong of one
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Statement

Let [ilmath]X[/ilmath] and [ilmath]Y[/ilmath] be sets and let [ilmath]f:X\rightarrow Y[/ilmath] be any mapping between them. Then [ilmath]f[/ilmath] induces an equivalence relation, [ilmath]\sim\subseteq X\times X[/ilmath] where[1]:

  • for [ilmath]x_1,x_2\in X[/ilmath] we say [ilmath]x_1\sim x_2[/ilmath] if [ilmath]f(x_1)=f(x_2)[/ilmath]

Note that [ilmath]f[/ilmath] may be factored through the canonical projection of an equivalence relation to yield an injection. Furthermore if [ilmath]f[/ilmath] is surjective, then so is the induced map, and then the induced map is a bijection.

Proof

Grade: D
This page requires one or more proofs to be filled in, it is on a to-do list for being expanded with them.
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The message provided is:
Easy proof, marked as such. Just gotta show it's an equivalence relation

This proof has been marked as an page requiring an easy proof

See also


TODO: Link to continuous version


References

  1. File:MondTop2016ex1.pdf