Talk:Continuous map

Claim

I noted:

UNPROVED: I suspect that this is the same as [ilmath]\forall\mathcal{O}\in\mathcal{K}[f(x_0)\in\mathcal{O}\implies f^{-1}(\mathcal{O})\in\mathcal{J}\wedge x_0\in f^{-1}(\mathcal{O})][/ilmath] - this is basically the same just on open sets instead

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TODO: Investigate and prove the highlighted claim

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(Leave any notes to self here)

It'd be good to have something on this somewhere. Also Boris confirmed this is indeed to strong. Somewhere... Alec (talk) 12:21, 11 May 2016 (UTC)